A330 Specific
A340-300 Specific
ETOPS
Limitations
Miscellaneous/Operational
Performance, Weight and Balance
Air Conditioning - Pressurisation
Autoflight - FMGS
Comm
Electrical
Fire Protection
Flight Controls
Fuel
Hydraulics
Ice and Rain
Indicating Recording System
Landing Gear
Navigation
Oxygen
APU - Pneumatics
Power Plant
If the total Fuel on Board quantity indication is displayed in a partial amber box this indicates that:
•The fuel quantity indication for a tank is degraded.
•The fuel in a tank is partially unusable.
•The fuel in a tank is unusable.
1.1.28.20 p16
Refueling should not be carried out:
•During severe lightning disturbances.
•Within 100 ft of another aircraft which is also being refueled.
•When there are passengers on the aircraft.
V2P2 1-2-13 5.4 [Ops Man Pt A 8.2.4.3]
During ground operations, how is the APU
supplied with fuel?
•Fuel is drawn from the LH Inner tank at all times.
•If the Trim tank contains fuel, or it is being refueled,
the Aft pump supplies fuel from the Trim
tank.
•Fuel is drawn from the Trim Pipe during refueling and for
the first 2 minutes of APU operation.
1.28.10 p25
How would a functional check of the Left wing Standby
pump be conducted?
•Ensure the Inner tank quantity is above 1,000 kg, check
Main pumps are selected ON, then select the STBY pushbutton to ON, check
positive pump pressure on the FUEL page
•With the main and standby pumps selected ON and, no PUMP
LO PR message displayed, open the crossfeed valve. This creates a momentary
pressure drop within the fuel delivery system and the standby pump operates.
•Ensure the Inner tank quantity is above 1,000
kg, check
Main pumps are selected OFF, then select the STBY push button to ON, check
positive pump pressure on the FUEL page.
1.28.20 p1 - not well written
If the Fuel Quantity Indication (FQI) system accuracy
is affected by invalid parameter inputs, the system reverts to "degraded mode".
How would this affect fuel system operation?
•The affected tank quantity indications will pulse to
indicate that the readings are unreliable. Dispatch would not be allowed.
•The affected tank quantity indications are "dashed" to
indicate a reduced level of accuracy. This would cause the target C of G to be
moved forward by 1.5%.
•The FOB indication is lost due to the affected tank
indications being unreliable, however dispatch can still be made provided the
CFP is adjusted accordingly.
1.28.20 p15 and 28.10 p17
What function do the Fuel INR TK SPLIT
pushbutton switches perform?
•When pushed they command the inner tank division
split valves to close. (SHUT illuminates in blue).
•When pushed they command the Emergency Isolation
Valves in the inner tank divisions to Open (ON is illuminated in white).
•They provide backup control of the inner tank feed
system in case of a failure that "Splits" FCMC1 from FCMC2.
1.28.20 p4
During cockpit preparation the crew
observes that the Fuel on Board quantity indication is displayed in a partial
amber box.
•What would this indicate?
•Fuel quantity indication (FQI) for at least one fuel
tank is in degraded mode. The available fuel in a tank is partially unusable.
•The
available fuel in a tank is completely unusable.
1.28.20 p11
Above what speed is the landing gear hydraulic supply automatically isolated:
•250 Knots.
•280 Knots
•260 Knots.
1.32.10 p3
The ENG 1 & ENG 4 (A340) or ENG 1 & ENG 2 (A330) Fire Shutoff Valves, are automatically closed by the HMSU in the event of:
•Complete electrical failure.
•Low fluid level in the Green and Blue reservoirs.
•Low fluid level in the Green reservoir.
1.29.10 p3
RAT RPM indication on the ECAM HYD page is available:
•All the time.
•When RAT RPM is greater than or equal to 3,000 RPM.
•When RAT RPM is above 100 RPM.
1.1.19.20 p8
What condition would cause the Yellow System
Leak Measurement valve on the overhead panel to automatically close (with the
OFF light illuminated), to avoid inadvertent movement of the flight controls?
•Whenever the Back Up Yaw Damper operates.
•Whenever the Blue HYD electric pump is used to top up the
brake accumulator.
•Whenever a FWD or Aft cargo door is opened or closed.
1.29.20 p5
What purpose does the hydraulic system accumulator
serve?
•It ensures adequate Brake pressure is available for Park
Brake operation.
•They ensure adequate system pressure is available for
Cargo Door operation and Park Brake use.
•They help maintain a constant pressure by covering
transient demands during normal operation.
1.29.10 p3
What hydraulic system users are affected when the
priority valve cuts off hydraulic power in the event of low pressure?
•The Spoiler system, Nose Wheel Steering and Landing Gear.
•The Emergency Generator, Nose Wheel Steering and Landing
Gear.
•Normal Braking (green hydraulic) system, Spoiler system
and Landing Gear.
QRH 5.02
How is the Yellow hydraulic system Electric
Pump protected in case of an overheat on the ground?
•The pump is shutdown automatically by the Hydraulic
System Monitoring Unit (HSMU).
•The pump automatically by- passes fluid to the low
pressure side, causing a LO PR ECAM and must be shutdown manually.
•The pump is controlled to a low flow state causing an
external horn to sound and a light to flash on the Yellow Hydraulic servicing
panel.
1.29.10 p3
After arrival at the gate it is noted that
the Yellow System Leak Measurement valve on the overhead panel has the OFF light
illuminated. Why?
•The valve has been automatically closed due to the
Back Up Yaw Damper in operation.
•The Blue HYD electric pump is being used to top up
the brake accumulator.
•The valve has been automatically closed due to the
FWD or AFT cargo door being opened.
1.29.10 p9 1.29.20 p4
On the ground the TAT probes heating:
•Operates at low power.
•Operates at high power.
•Is not applied.
1.30.50 p1
If the aircraft has been de-iced or anti-iced:
•A pre-takeoff inspection must be carried out just prior to takeoff.
•Wing anti-ice must be used for takeoff.
•The before takeoff checklist should be completed before taxying.
V2P2 3-2-24 16.4 B & 16.9 C [Ops Man Pt A 8.2.5.2 p6 & p12]
If, after anti-icing, there are further
delays and repeated anti-icing is required, what procedure should be applied?
•The surfaces must first be de-iced with a hot fluid
mixture before a further application of anti-icing fluid is made.
•Providing a visual inspection only reveals hoar frost,
then anti-icing fluid can be re-applied without the need for de-icing first.
•Re-application of anti-icing fluid should be made, as this
is normal procedure and will act as a de-icing fluid as well in these
circumstances.
Not as clear previously - V2P2 3-2-25 Note d & 3-2-27 Note e 7.4 Be
[Ops Man Pt A 8.2.5.2 p10 Gen Op Note 5]
What cautions should be considered when aircraft
surfaces are contaminated by frost, ice or snow?
•Do not operate flaps/slats, trim or flight control
surfaces if they are not free of ice.
•The affected areas of wings/surfaces (whether just the
left hand side, just the right hand side or both sides) must be de-iced with a
hot fluid mixture before applying anti-icing fluid.
•The affected surface must be de-iced if witness markings
are not clearly visible beneath the frost on the wings.
V2P2 3-2-31 16.8 C
3-2-33 16.14 [Ops Man Pt A 8.2.5.2 p12 Note 3 and 8.3.12.14 p55]
What occurs when the wing anti-ice
pushbutton is selected ON during taxi?
•A 30 second test sequence is initiated. The wing anti
- ice valves will be closed at the end of the test.
•There is no anti-ice system response as the system
operates only in flight.
•Wing anti-icing is initiated. The wing anti-ice
valves will be open at the end of the test to allow warming of the leading edges
on ground and in flight.
1.30.20 p4
As the wing anti - ice is selected ON, the
FAULT light is observed to illuminate momentarily. What would be the correct
action?
•No action required as this is normal as the pressure
builds up, or when the valve opens.
•The wing anti-ice pushbutton switch should be cycled
OFF then ON to reset the system logic.
•No action required as this is a feature of the self
test sequence on the ground only.
1.30.20 p4
What Primary Criteria is used for determination of Engine Anti
Ice use?
•Temperature and Pressure.
•Ice Detected ECAM
•Temperature and Visible Moisture
3.04.30 p1
What would be the consequence with a dual probe heater failure
in icing conditions?
•The ADIRU values could become corrupted, therefore one of the affected ADIRU's
should be selected OFF.
•The ADIRU values become corrupted, therefore both of the affected ADIRU's
should be selected OFF.
•All ADIRU values become corrupted, the FLT CTL ADR DISAGREE ECAM caution will
be triggered and would be actioned accordingly.
3.02.30 p12 et seq & QRH 2.12 (through drill differs for Group 1/2 and 3/4) -
(a)
ATA31 Indicating Recording System
Certain Pushbutton lights have two dots printed on them which indicate:
•A reset may be attempted.
•The corresponding part of the pb light is not used.
•Selecting the pb out will cancel the FAULT light if illuminated.
1.25.10 p2
In case of mode or range data failure on the ND, the default selection is:
•The selection existing at the time of the failure.
•ARC mode and 160 nm scale.
•ROSE NAV mode and 80 nm scale.
1.31.51 p3
The ADIRUs give TRUE heading instead of MAGNETIC heading:
•Above about 60 Degrees North
•Above about 73 Degrees North in the magnetic polar region (between approx 90 Degrees and 120 Degrees West longitude).
•Above about 73 Degrees North irrespective of longitude.
1.31.45.p3
The energy circle is displayed:
•In any ND mode except PLAN.
•Only In ROSE NAV and ARC modes.
•In all ND modes.
1.31.45 p12
In a managed non-precision approach, if the LS button on the FCU is pressed:
•The vertical deviation indication will be un-affected.
•The vertical deviation indication will be replaced by the glide deviation indication, and an amber "V/DEV" will flash on the PFD.
•The glide deviation indication will be super-imposed on the vertical deviation indication.
1.31.40 p34
Pressing the T.O. CONFIG pb prior to takeoff, checks numerous items and will give an
ECAM warning/ caution if the following are not all appropriate for takeoff:
•Slats/Flaps, Pitch Trim, Brake Temperature, Doors, Rudder Trim, and Park Brake.
•Slats/Flaps, Pitch Trim, Brake Temperature, Rudder Trim, Speedbrakes, and Doors.
•Slats/Flaps, Pitch Trim, Rudder Trim, Doors, Sidestick Takeover, Speedbrakes and Park Brake.
1.31.15 p8
When will the glideslope deviation diamond
and scale flash?
•In the event of excessive deviation.
•In the event of loss of the glideslope signal.
•In the event of failure of the glideslope receiver.
1.31.45 p7
When is the yaw bar displayed?
•When a localiser is available, up to 30
ft RA, on takeoff
(in RWY mode) and landing (in FLARE and ROLL OUT mode.)
•On landing, in ROLLOUT mode, with AP engaged; the FD bars
remain in view at all times.
•At all times on both takeoff and landing.
1.31.40 p21
When is VFE next displayed on the PFD?
•At all times
•Only below 20,000
ft, except in CONF FULL.
•Whenever the flap lever has been moved from the UP
position.
1.31.40 p11
The Range Select switch on the EFIS Control Panel is
used to select a range between 10nm and 320nm, however, what is the default
selection displayed on the ND in case of mode or range data failure?
•The selection existing at the time of the failure.
•ARC mode and 160 nm scale.
•ROSE NAV mode and 80 nm scale.
1.31.50 p3
A CHECK HDG flag appears on both ND's when the FWC detects 5
degrees discrepancy between sides 1 & 2. Are there any restrictions on when an
amber CHECK HDG flag can appear?
•No, the message can appear in any ND mode.
•The message appears in all ND modes except ARC.
•The message appears in all ND modes except PLAN.
1.31.45 p24
The PF notes that the grey background on the speed, heading, vertical speed and
altitude scales is no longer visible. What would this indicate?
•A Transient failure mode of the DMC. Automatic reset is in progress.
•Power consumption has been reduced to prevent overheating of the DU due to the
temperature of the PFDU reaching the threshold limit.
•The temperature of the PFDU is within 15% of the threshold limit. If it stays
the same, or increases, then imminent DU failure can be expected.
1.31.40 p2
On landing on a slippery runway with autobrake MED selected, if the predetermined deceleration is not reached due to anti-skid operation:
•This indicates that there is an anti-skid problem and manual braking should be commenced immediately using no more than 1,000 psi of brake pressure to avoid skidding.
•The green DECEL light will illuminate approximately 5 seconds after the autobrake function is active.
•The green DECEL light will not illuminate. This is normal in these circumstances and does not mean that autobrake is not working.
1.32.30 p11
Which braking systems are deactivated when the Parking Brake Control Handle is ON:
•Normal.
•Alternate.
•Normal, Alternate and Antiskid.
(c)
Dodgy question - 1.32.30 - from Barry Badenhorst
When utilising alternate braking without anti-skid, the accumulators supply:
•One application of pressure at 1,000 psi only.
•At least seven full applications of brakes.
•Unlimited brake applications.
1.1.1.32.30 p6
If LGCIU 1 has failed (but is still
electrically supplied) there are a number of consequences. Which of the
following statements is FALSE?
•Amber crosses will appear on the ECAM WHEEL page in the
left hand L/G position triangles (controlled by LGCIU1).
•The inverted triangles on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel
will no longer illuminate when the gear is down.
•GPWS should be selected OFF as GPWS receives "L/G in up
position" even if L/G is down.
1.32.10 p14
What does the DECEL light on the Autobrake selection
switch indicate?
•Only that autobrake has become active.
•That autobraking is active AND the deceleration rate
corresponds to the predetermined rate selected.
•The selected deceleration rate has been achieved via
reversers or reversers and brakes, with or without the autobrake active.
1.32.30 p13
What condition(s) are required to initiate the
Autobrake function?
•The ground spoilers are commanded to extend.
•Reverse thrust is selected below 72 kt ground speed.
•The "on ground" condition is detected by SEC 2.
1.32.30 p5 TR
If you experience a loss of braking (A/BRK OFF), what
should your immediate actions be?
•Immediately apply the ECAM checklist.
•Select REV MAX, apply brake pedals and select A/SKID & N/W
STRG switch OFF.
•Select REV MAX, release Brake Pedals and then select
A/SKID & N/W STRG switch OFF, then limit brake pressure to approx 1,000 psi as
indicated on the BRAKES PRESS indicator.
QRH 1.19
Which statement is correct when using the GRAVITY EXTN
system to extend the landing gear?
•Gear extension is normal and uses the green hydraulic
system.
•Main and Nose Gears extend by gravity and the doors remain
open.
•Main, Nose Gears and centre gears(A340) extend after which
the doors will close.
QRH 2.15
When can the Aural Warning for the Landing
Gear not selected down be canceled using the MASTER WARN light?
•If the LG is not down and locked, radio height is
lower than 750 ft and all engines NOT at takeoff power.
•If the LG is not down and locked, flaps at 2,3 or
FULL, both Radio Altimeters failed and all engines NOT at takeoff power.
•It is not possible to cancel the aural warnings in
approach conditions.
1.32.10 p19
When does the ADIRU's give TRUE heading instead of
MAGNETIC heading?
•Above about 60 Degrees North
•Above about 73 Degrees North in the magnetic polar region
(between approx 90 Degrees and
120 Degrees West longitude).
•Above about 73 Degrees North irrespective of longitude.
4.04.40 p5
In which ND modes are TCAS targets displayed?
•All modes.
•All ROSE modes and ARC mode.
•All ROSE modes except ROSE LS, and ARC mode.
1.34.80 p10
If the Terrain Awareness Display (TAD) function of the
EGPWS generates a caution/warning message with the TERR ON ND selected OFF,
which of the following statements is correct?
•An aural "Terrain Ahead, Pull Up" will be heard and you
should select the TERR ON ND Pb ON unless the weather display is required.
•Terrain is automatically displayed on the ND and the ON
light comes on, on the TERR ON ND
Pb switch.
•With the TERR ON ND Pb selected off the terrain function
of the EGPWS is inhibited.
1.34.70 p9
How is the predictive windshear system detecting windshear?
•By analysing precipitation that the weather radar detects.
•By detecting mountain wave and other clear air windshear encounters.
•Both of the above answers are correct.
(a)
Not sure this is specifically
stated anywhere but it can be implied from a very good presentation in Best Practices.
Consider also Airbus FAST #26: In the predictive windshear detection mode, the
radar detects small raindrops "flying" in opposite directions (microburst
event). Note: With the technology available today windshear and turbulence
cannot be detected in dry air conditions.
Some aircraft have weather radars with predictive windshear
capability. Which statement is correct regarding the Predictive Windshear system
aural alerts?
•They are inhibited by TCAS, GPWS and other FWC aural alerts.
•They are inhibited by windshear detected by FMGC and stall warning aural
messages.
•They have priority over windshear detected by FMGC and stall warning aural
messages.
1.34.60 p4
What will be displayed on the ND when the weather radar is ON, AND the
TERR ON ND switch is also ON?
•Weather Radar information will be displayed on the ND.
•Terrain information will be displayed on the ND.
•Both weather and terrain information will be superimposed on the ND.
1.34.70 p9
What is the altitude range of displayed intruders when the TCAS
TRAFFIC set switch is selected to ABV?
•9,900 ft above and 2,700 ft below the aircraft.
•9,900 ft below and 2,700 ft above the aircraft.
•2,700 ft above and below the aircraft.
1.34.80 p9
Company policy concerning use of an ILS facility notified as,
"On Test", by NOTAM is:
•the ILS may be used with caution,
•the ILS may be used, if permitted by ATC,
•the ILS must not be used.
V2P2 1-4-10 [Ops Man Pt A 8.3.26.3.1 Note 3]
At what altitude in descent is the
"Increase Descent" TCAS RA inhibited?
•Below 1,700 ft AGL.
•Below 1,650 ft AGL.
•Below 1,450 ft AGL.
1.34.80 p6
What is the meaning of an intruder level
that is classified as proximate?
•The intruder is closer than 6nm laterally and +/-
1,200 ft vertically.
•The intruder is a potential collision threat.
•The intruder is a real collision threat.
1.34.80 p5
What actions are required, if, after a 3 hour flight the POSITION MONITOR page
indicates that the Radial Distance
Error for a particular IRS is 18 nm?
•No action is required unless GS > 15 kt.
•It should be recorded in the Maintenance Log
identifying the associated IRS.
•The IRU must be removed.
3.03.25 p2
At FL150 a TCAS RA generates a climb command. You contact ATC in the climb and
state the following:
•"Cathay 451, leaving FL150, TCAS RA".
•"Cathay 451, TCAS RA".
•"Cathay 451, TCAS CLIMB".
(b) Revised ICAO procedures
Changing the transponder setting to TA only should be done:
•When instructed by ATC.
•In accordance with the QRH.
•In areas of high density.
V2P2 1-8-10 para 25.2[Ops
Man Pt A 8.3.11]
You simultaneously receive a contradictory ATC instruction and TCAS RA. You
should:
•Respond "Cathay 451, unable, TCAS RA."
•Follow ATC instruction and read back the clearance.
•Select TA only.
V2P2 1-8-11 para 25.3 and Revised ICAO procedures
[Ops Man Pt A 8.3.11 p41]
The cockpit oxygen pressure on the DOOR/OXY page
becomes amber when pressure is < 400psi. Is there an associated ECAM message?
•An ECAM Caution message.
•An ECAM Memo message.
•No ECAM message.
(c) - not convinced 1.31.15 p7 1.35.20 p10
Which of the following statements is correct regarding
the cockpit crew mask?
•It has a removable strip which protects the visor against
scratches and must be removed before donning.
•Uses oxygen at positive pressure to prevent icing during
rapid depressurisation.
•Has a removable strip, which protects the visor against
scratches and can be removed to recover partial sight in case of ice build up on
the mask.
1.35.20 p1
With the crew mask mounted regulator set to normal:
•The mask automatically supplies pure oxygen at all altitudes.
•You must use the overpressure rotating knob to supply pure oxygen.
•The user breathes a mixture of cabin air and oxygen up to a certain altitude.
1.35.20 p1
If the APU BLEED Pb is selected on during descent passing FL 255, the APU BLEED valve:
•Is automatically closed above 23,000 ft.
•Will open if any engine bleed system is inoperative or selected off.
•Will open if all engine bleed systems are inoperative or selected off.
1.36.20 p2
With HP ground air supply connected for engine start:
•The crossbleed valve has to be opened manually and packs must be selected off.
•The crossbleed valve opens automatically.
•Packs may be used in hot and humid conditions.
3.04.70 p3
The pneumatic system precooler:
•Will always regulate the pneumatic air temperature to 200 Degrees C +/- slight variations.
•Is an air to air heat exchanger, which uses fan air to cool the engine bleed air.
•Is a fuel to air heat exchanger and is mounted downstream of the bleed valve.
1.36.10 p5
With all ENG BLEED Pb switches selected ON, the ECAM BLEED page indicates that one bleed valve on one side is closed and green. There is no other relevant ECAM messages:
•Call Maintenance.
•Disregard, as there is no operational consequence.
•Refer to the paper checklist in FCOM 3.
1.36.20 p4
With an APU FAULT ECAM message on the ground:
•An automatic shutdown should always occur.
•The APU should be shutdown manually if not done automatically.
•If the APU does not shutdown automatically it must be left running for electrical and/or pneumatic purposes.
3.02.49 p1
On the ECAM BLEED page the precooler outlet temperature indication:
•Is normally green but becomes amber if temperature exceeds 257 Degrees C (but is less than 270 Degrees C) for 30 seconds.
•Is normally blue but becomes amber if temperature exceeds 257 Degrees C (but is less than 270 Degrees C) for 30 seconds.
•Is normally green but becomes amber if temperature drops below 150 Degrees C when wing
anti-ice is selected ON.
1.36.20 p5
With an ECAM warning AIR APU BLEED LEAK displayed, when
will the FAULT light be illuminated?
•It remains illuminated until the APU is shutdown.
•It remains illuminated until the overheat condition
disappears and the APU BLEED pb is turned "OFF".
•It illuminates until the APU BLEED
pb is selected "OFF".
3.02.35 p5
How is a WNG LEAK DET FAULT caution indicated to the
crew?
•A single chime, Master Caution light and an ECAM caution
only.
•An ECAM caution and displayed as an INOP system on the
ECAM STATUS page.
•Illumination of the WING anti-ice FAULT light.
(b) 3.02.36 p6 1.36.20 p9
Which statement is true regarding the GND HP ground
connection display on the ECAM BLEED page?
•It is displayed in green to confirm that the ground air
supply is connected.
•It is always displayed on the ground regardless of air
supply and indicates its position on the left side of the pneumatic system.
•It is always displayed on the ground regardless of air
supply and indicates its position on the right side of the pneumatic system.
1.36.20 p3/6
From where can the APU be shutdown in an
emergency?
•Refuel/Defuel panel, External power control /interphone
panel and the cockpit overhead panel.
•Refuel/Defuel panel, the blue hydraulic service panel and
the cockpit overhead panel.
•Only on the cockpit overhead panel.
1.49.10 p3
What is the approximate APU fuel consumption during ground
operation, with PACKS and APU GEN ON?
•200 kg / hour.
•140 kg / hour.
•130
kg / hour.
2.05.10 p1
On selecting an ENG BLEED Pb "ON", when does the
associated bleed valve open?
•When switch selection is made and the upstream pressure is
>8 psi, APU BLEED Pb is OFF (or APU bleed valve is closed), the ENG Fire Pb is
not released out, the Engine start valve is closed, no bleed leak on either side
and no bleed fault detected
•Immediately because the valve is electrically actuated
irrespective of whether the engine is running or not and provided the ENG Fire
Pb is not released out, APU BLEED Pb is OFF and no leak detected.
•When the switch is selected and upstream pressure is above
8 psi, APU BLEED Pb is OFF (or APU bleed valve is closed), ENG Fire Pb not
released out, Engine start valve closed, no onside bleed leak and no bleed fault
is detected.
1.36.20 p1
What actions would be required if this ECAM message was
displayed during taxi?
•None as the Electronic Control Box (ECB) will shut down
the APU automatically.
•The APU should be shutdown manually if not required and if
not done automatically by the ECB.
•If the APU does not shutdown automatically it indicates a
failure of the ECB and must be shut down immediately.
Phase 2 on inhibit – 3.02.49 p1
Which of the following warnings would be presented to the
crew following an auto-shutdown of the APU (other than a fire)?
•Single chime sounds, MASTER CAUT light, APU FAULT
displayed on the E/WD, APU page called to view and the FAULT light illuminates
in the APT Master switch.
•The APU FAULT- AUTO SHUT DOWN caution would be presented
except between setting TO power, and reaching 80 kt on rollout after landing.
•Single chime sounds, MASTER CAUT light, APU FAULT
displayed on the E/WD, APU page displayed on the SD and the FAULT light
illuminates in the APU start switch.
1.49.20 p7 (a)
Which power supplies maybe used to start
the APU?
•Only the aircraft batteries or normal aircraft
electrical network supply.
•The APU battery may be used to start throughout the
normal flight envelope.
•The aircraft batteries, external power or normal
aircraft electrical network power supply.
1.49.10 p7
On application of TO thrust with a DRT thrust set on the MCDU PERF TO, the Capt sets the thrust levers to the TOGA detent.
•ECAM ENG THR LEVERS NOT SET occurs.
•ECAM ENG TO THRUST DISAGREE occurs.
•No warnings occur because TOGA thrust is more than DRT thrust.
3.02.70 p12
If there is no validated thrust lever angle, for one engine thrust lever during normal managed cruise flight:
•Manual thrust should be used, as the autothrust signal will be invalid.
•A/THR should be used and the appropriate engine will only deliver idle thrust during approach and landing.
•A/THR must be used to ensure normal thrust management on the applicable engine during cruise, approach and landing.
ENG # THR LEVER FAULT – 3.02.70 p23
What should the
crew consider when using the "Crossbleed engine" start procedure?
•Ensure the ENG BLEED valve pushbuttons (all engines) are
selected to "OFF".
•The N1 of the supplying engine(s) may be increased up to
30% if required.
•External pneumatic air if available and engine bleed
supply may be used to assist in maintaining the required air pressure.
3.04.70 p6
If there is no validated thrust lever angle, for one
engine thrust lever during normal managed cruise flight, how should the thrust
be controlled?
•Manual thrust should be used, as the autothrust signal
will be invalid.
•A/THR should be used and the appropriate engine will only
deliver idle thrust during approach and landing.
•A/THR must be used to ensure normal thrust management on
the applicable engine during cruise, approach and landing.
3.02.70 p28
What conditions would cause "LVR MCT" to flash on the FMA?
•If the thrust levers are not in MCT position after an
engine failure (with the speed above green dot), the message flashes White.
•If the thrust levers are not in MCT position after an
engine failure altitude with the aircraft above thrust reduction, the message
flashes Amber.
•If the thrust levers are not in MCT position after an
engine failure when the aircraft is above acceleration altitude as selected on
the Takeoff PERF page, the message flashes White.
1.22.30 p92 1.70.30 p7
When an engine is running at or above idle, what
electrical supply powers the FADEC system?
•It is self powered by a dedicated alternator above 8% N3
(A330) and 12 % N2 (A340).
•The corresponding AC Bus is the primary power supply at
all times (dedicated alternator used as back up)
•The corresponding DC Bus is the primary power supply at
all times (dedicated alternator used as back up)
1.70.20 p5
How does the start valve operate during a manual engine
start?
•It closes, by manual command, when the MAN START Pb is
selected off.
•It closes automatically when the IGN/START switch is
selected to NORM.
•It closes automatically when N2 (A340) N3 (A330/A346)
reaches 50%.
1.70.80 p7
On ground, after engine start, how would
the PF select continuous ignition on the engine?
•Ensure ENG START selector is left in the IGN/START
position.
•Cycle the ENG START selector to NORM, then back to
IGN/START.
•Select the ENG MAN START pb on the overhead panel,
causing ignition to turn on as the engine N1 speed is at or above ignition
cut-off RPM.
1.70.80 p4
What is the A/THR controlling range, with one (or more for A340) engine(s)
inoperative?
•Between the IDLE and the CL detent on the thrust
lever quadrant.
•Between IDLE and the FLEX/MCT detent.
•Between IDLE and the TOGA detent.
1.70.35 p4
On an A330 aircraft, how is Unrated N1 mode identified to the crew?
•Unrated N1 mode is identified by the phrase “N1
UNRATED MODE ”as part of the ECAM “EPR MODE FAULT message.
•Unrated N1 mode is identified by the phrase “N1
DEGRADED MODE ”as part of the ECAM “EPR MODE FAULT" message.
•An N1 amber thrust limit indicator is placed on the
N1 scale.
3.02.70 p29
What are your actions if the message “ENG 2 REV INHIBITED ”is displayed on ECAM?
•The reverser fails to operate as it has been selected
while airborne.
•This message is for crew awareness.
•Engine 2 reverser has just failed and will not
operate on landing.
3.02.70 p20
How does the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton
supply electrical current to the FADEC?
•The FADEC is supplied by the aircraft electrical
system as long as the pushbutton is selected and the "ON" light illuminates
(except if the ENG FIRE pb is released).
•With the pushbutton selected, the FADEC is supplied
for up to 5 minutes, provided the ENG FIRE pb is not released or the engine is
running.
•The FADEC is supplied by the aircraft electrical
system on ground or in flight as long as the pushbutton is selected and the "ON"
light is illuminated.
1.70.20 p6
During taxi for takeoff the ECAM caution message "ENG 2 FADEC
SYS FAULT" is displayed. What would your actions be?
•Shut down the engine and return to the gate.
•Continue as this is a minor fault message.
•Shut down the engine and attempt a restart.
3.02.70 p15