Airbus Tech Quiz
This page is purely for my benefit. Once the Tech Quiz was neatly tied to the Annual Line Check and full of reasonable questions that had clear answers. Now some saddo has dumped it in the Summer Holidays when the kids are off school so you buy up time doing a quiz that doesn't even have the benefit of working you up for the AL. The questions are often bizarre and inaccurate such as the new max altitude one, hard to fathom such as the LVP in DPS (still don't get that one). So I thought I'd make my life easy and collate my previous efforts, then decided that I might as well post it on my web site - as good a place as any. No answers here (well, not many) so I have to open the book next year. This page was built to the sounds of David Coverdale's Whitesnake Live In the Still of the Night and Porcupine Tree's Arriving Somewhere... so the desk and monitor are currently reverberating.
If you feel that you can help flesh out this page, dispute my references or have a better one, e-mail me andytracy.hk[AT]gmail.com. The actual TQ appears in section titled by systems; that doesn't really work for me nor is it consistent with Airbus philosophy so I've reverted to ATA with a couple of collector sections.
Updated with my 2013 questions.
Looking forward to updating the FCOM references to the new format - aiya!
Performance, Weight and Balance
Air Conditioning - Pressurisation
Autoflight - FMGS
Ice and Rain
Indicating Recording System
APU - Pneumatics
During a MAN ENG START:
•The flight crew must monitor all engine parameters and take appropriate action in case of an abnormal start.
•The engine will automatically shutdown for an EGT exceedence if on the ground.
•The FADEC monitors all engine parameters and will take the necessary action to prevent any limits being exceeded.
The fixed oxygen system in the cabin is supplied by chemical generators:
•Stored in the forward cargo compartment.
•Which supply a mixture of oxygen and cabin air under positive pressure depending on cabin altitude.
•In containers above the passenger seats.
During a Go-Around, Engine 2 EGT is noted
as reaching a high of 908 degrees C for approximately 25 seconds. Which of the
following statements is true?
•This should trigger an ECAM warning ENG 2 EGT OVERLIMTT
•No ECAM warning would be announced as the EGT limit for TOGA is 920 degrees C.
•EGT limit is 900 degrees C, however good airmanship requires that the Thrust lever be retarded to reduce the EGT to below the limit.
1.70.95 p19 3.01.70 p1
To ensure a proper test of the system, how should the
CARGO SMOKE TEST Pb be pressed?
•Pushed and held for more than 2 seconds (but less than 5 seconds).
•Pushed and held for more than 5 seconds (but less than 7 seconds).
The cabin fixed oxygen system capacity is dependant on
the aircraft descending according to a fixed profile. Which statement correctly
identifies this profile?
•Requires the aircraft to be at (or below) FL 250, 7 minutes after initiating the descent.
•Requires an emergency descent to 10000ft within 20 minutes.
•Allows the aircraft to level off at FL 290 for 17 minutes during the descent.
During departure preparation it is noted that gusty wind conditions
exist. Which of the following parameters should be observed?
•Wind limits of 32 kt with gusts up to 40 kt for takeoff and landing.
•Wind limits of 32 kt for takeoff and 32 kt with gusts up to 40 kt for landing.
•Wind limits of 32 kt for takeoff and 15 kt for landing.
In the event of a passenger oxygen mask being deployed by mistake in
flight, and the passenger pulling the mask down, what further actions are
•If the flight is full then the oxygen masks and tubes should be secured to the PSU's with adhesive tape.
•If the flight is full then the oxygen masks should be restowed and descent must be initiated in case of a pressurisation malfunction later in the flight.
•Restow the affected masks carefully and close the door.
Which of the following is correct regarding the fixed cabin oxygen
•8 bottles are located in the forward cargo compartment and supply oxygen to passenger masks via dedicated piping.
•The bottles supply a mixture of oxygen and cabin air under positive pressure depending on cabin altitude.
•Oxygen containers (should read generators) are located in the PSU's above the passenger seats.
During deployment, engine reverse thrust is limited to reverse idle
until reversers are:
•Deployed by more than 70%.
•Deployed by more than 90%.
If a tail pipe fire was experienced, requiring starter
engagement, how long could the starter remain continuously engaged?
•6 Minutes total based on two 3 minute duty cycles.
•There is no FCOM limitation, in this situation.
QRH 2.25 3.01.70 p2
Under normal Operating conditions, what is
the maximum starter duty cycle?
•6 Minutes total based on two 3 minute duty cycles.
This graphic shows the secondary ECAM
parameters of the ENGINE page. With the indications shown what configuration is
correctly described below?
•Engine 1 is running at idle. Auto start on Engine 2 has been initiated and the start valve has failed to open.
•Engine 1 was started, the ENG START selector was turned to NORM, then re selected to IGN/START in order to start engine 2.
•After start of Engine 1, and before starting engine 2, the engine anti - ice valve was detected open causing the FADEC to select continuous ignition on engine 1.
1.70.80 p9 1.30.30 p2 - A word of warning. A simple check on an A330 shows that cycling the Start Selector yields only a single igniter. I answered (c) but the "correct" answer is given as (b).
What is the maximum tailwind starting limitation:
•There is no limit only a recommendation.
Before pushback/engine start of B-HXD in TPE the wind speed is recorded at >15
kt. If pushback places the engine tailpipe into wind, is the start allowed?
•No, as the tailwind start limit is a sustained wind speed of 15 Knots.
•Start is allowed at winds gusting to 25 Knots.
•Start is allowed as there is no defined limit only a recommendation.
In the event of a rejected takeoff above 72/78 kt, ground spoiler deployment occurs:
•With the spoilers not armed, when all thrust levers are at idle, and at least one reverser is selected.
•With the spoilers not armed, when all the thrust levers are at idle.
•With the spoilers armed, when all the thrust levers are at idle.
During a relight of the CFM56 engine in flight:
•If airspeed is at or above 300kt, a manual start is recommended.
•The FADEC controls abort and recycle capabilities.
•Airspeed at or above 300kt is needed for a windmilling start.
You are operating B-HXL. After pushback and during engine start, what is the
maximum allowable EGT?
•700 degrees C (ground conditions, 850 in flight).
•950 degrees C at any time
•725 degrees C (ground conditions or in flight).
How is the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton used?
•The FADEC is supplied by the aircraft electrical system as long as the pushbutton is selected and the "ON" light illuminates (except if the ENG FIRE pb is released)
•With the pushbutton selected, the FADEC is supplied for up to 5 minutes, provided the ENG FIRE pb is not released or the engine is running.
•The FADEC is supplied by the aircraft electrical system on ground or in flight as long as the pushbutton is selected and the "ON' light is illuminated.
Which of the following values are correct for the fuel
jettison rate, (excluding fuel burn)?
•5,000 kg / min.
•2,000 kg / min.
•1,000 kg / min.
After takeoff the left gear door fails to retract/close. A
decision is made to return to the departure airfield. The ECAM permanent data
shows: GW 225,000 kg and CG 26.5%. What actions should be considered regarding
the fuel system?
•Jettison fuel at a rate of 2,000 kg/min until MLW is achieved.
•Considering the failure mode, no jettison should be attempted and an emergency landing could be made.
•Jettison fuel for approximately 35 minutes prior to requesting all necessary landing clearances.
3.01.20 p2, FCTM 8.6.1, 1.28.10 p28, QRH 2.11
What is the maximum guaranteed relight altitude for the
conditions apply during a relight of the CFM56 engine in flight?
•If airspeed is at or above 300 kt, a manual start is recommended.
•The FADEC controls abort and recycle capabilities.
•Airspeed at or above 300 kt is needed for a windmilling start.
When using Jet A fuel, if the actual freeze temp is not known, what is
the minimum fuel temperature allowed in flight?
•Minus 35 Degrees C in any tank.
•Minus 35 Degrees C in the inner tank.
•Minus 45 Degrees C in the inner tank.
Which of the following is true when a Gravity Extension
selection is made?
•The main, nose and center landing gear doors unlock, the gears extend by gravity, the doors remain open and NWS is retained (via the Yellow hydraulic system).
•The main and nose landing gear doors unlock, these gears extend by gravity, the doors remain open, (except for the center gear which remains closed). NWS is lost.
•The main, nose and center landing gear doors unlock, all landing gears extend, assisted by spring force, and the NWS is lost due to the doors remaining open.
When the aircraft is being operated with no cabin crew on
board, (with or without passengers), additional checks should be made. Which
statement is correct?
•PNF checks the cabin for general security, signs for any catering, secures the galley, Captain arms L1 and L2 doors checks LDMCR access hatch is open, and remains in the open position. Captain also ensures passengers carried (according to Vol 1) receive a ...
•PF checks the cabin for general security, arms L1 and R1 doors PNF signs for any catering, secures the galley, LDMCR access hatch checked closed, and remains in the closed position. Captain ensures passengers carried (according to Vol 1) receive a safety ...
•PNF checks the cabin for general security, signs for any catering, secures the galley, arms L1 and R1 doors LDMCR access hatch checked closed, and remains in the closed position. Captain ensures passengers carried (according to Vol 1) receive an emergency ...
An ETOPS CFP provides estimates of the earliest and latest time of arrival at
the nominated suitable airports. These times assume take-off at:
•STD + 15 minutes.
•STD + 10 minutes.
•STD + 20 minutes.
Ops Man Pt A 8.1 p69
Following a diversion from the ETOPS critical point, fuel planning will enable:
•30 mins holding at 1,500 ft, followed by an approach, go-around and further approach and landing.
•15 mins holding at 1,500 ft, followed by an approach and missed approach, and then a normal landing.
•An approach and missed approach, diversion to alternate, arriving with 15 minutes of fuel, then a final approach and landing.
Ops Man Pt A 8.5.3
At the planning stage for an ETOPS flight,
your flight plan indicates there are several non-ETOPS route segments. Poor
weather is forecast for some of the airports in the non-ETOPS segments of the
intended flight. Which statement below is correct?
•All enroute airports must meet ETOPS Dispatch criteria as the whole flight is an ETOPS operation.
•The forecast weather must be suitable for at least CAT 1 operations.
•Normal en-route, destination and alternate planning minima in accordance with Vol.2 Pt.2, Section 1 are to be used for the non-ETOPS segments.
Ops Man Pt A 8.5.4
After dispatch, but prior to the ETOPS Entry Point, a
diversion must be carried out for:
•any equipment failure annotated with an "E" in the MEL
•if a checklist requires the crew to "plan to land at the nearest suitable airport / LAND ASAP".
•both the options are correct.
Ops Man Pt A 8.5.5
The ETOPS 60 minute Rule Distance for the B777 and A330 is:
•based upon 75% of VMO/MMO for 60 minutes in still air.
Ops Man Pt A 8.5.2
Rule Distance used for flight planning is calculated for each
•at MMO / VMO speed (except for the B777-300ER, which is based on MMO / VMO-10kts) during the descent to the stabilized engine inoperative cruising altitude and thereafter at LRC.
•at the one engine inoperative MMO / VMO speed (except for the B777-300ER, which is based on MMO / VMO-10kts).
•at the one engine inoperative LRC speed (except for the B777-300ER, which is based on LRC-10kts) for each aircraft type.
Ops Man Pt A 8.5.2 p2
In ETOPS operations, the "90/60 Rule" means that the aircraft may
dispatch on an ETOPS flight provided:
•system functionality is confirmed within the first 60 minutes of the flight.
•system functionality is verified within the first 90 minutes, provided the aircraft remains within 60 minutes of a suitable airport.
•system functionality is verified within the first 60 minutes while the aircraft remains within a Rule Time of 90 minutes, taking the effects of wind into account.
Ops Man Pt A 8.5.6
When a verification flight is completed on an ETOPS flight,
the commander must:
•Contact Cathay Pacific Maintenance Control after the the completion of the first 90 minutes of flight, and prior to entering the ETOPS segment, with the results of the verification.
•Contact Cathay Pacific Maintenance Control after the the completion of the first 60 minutes of flight, and prior to entering the ETOPS segment, with the results of the verification.
•Contact Cathay Pacific Maintenance Control after landing with the results of the verification.
Ops Man Pt A 8.5.6
After dispatch for an ETOPS flight, the weather minima for a suitable
enroute alternate airport must be above:
•ETOPS planning minima.
•Alternate planning minima.
Ops Man Pt A 8.5.4 & 22.214.171.124.1
Critical Fuel Point code of "120ETOP2" on the CFP means:
•207 minutes ETOPS Rule Time with a MEL fuel additive of 12%.
•120 minutes ETOPS Rule Time with a MEL fuel additive of 1%.
•120 minutes ETOPS Rule Time with a MEL fuel additive of 2%.
Ops Man Pt A 126.96.36.199 p65
While the aircraft is within an
ETOPS route segment, ATC issues a clearance which would take you outside the
Distance of the planned ERA. You must:
•readback and comply with the ATC clearance.
•accept the clearance but advise ATC that you will be operating outside ETOPS coverage.
•advise ATC that you are unable to accept the clearance.
Ops Man Pt A 8.5.5
planning purposes, forecasts of TEMPO weather conditions below alternate minima:
•Will always be ignored. However, the commander is expected to exercise good judgment in assessing the overall weather conditions when making a decision to exclude Tempo, Inter and Prob conditions.
•Will always be controlling in determining the adequacy of an ETOPS nominated airport.
•May be ignored provided they are at, or above, the applicable published landing minima.
Ops Man Pt A 188.8.131.52 & 184.108.40.206 Note 6 & 220.127.116.11.1
the ETOPS sector, if the weather conditions at the ETOPS ERA deteriorate below
landing minima you should select another suitable airfield within the Rule
Distance. If that is not possible then:
•Contact IOC for a dispensation.
•The aircraft may stay on the present route and find a suitable airfield as close as possible to that route.
•Declare an emergency and divert to the closest airport.
Ops Man Pt A 8.5.5
Prior to the ETOPS Entry Point crew are to
ensure the weather at the nominated ERA(s) remain:
•above landing minima.
•above alternate planning minima.
•above non-precision approach alternate planning minima.
An ETOPS verification flight:
•may be completed on a non ETOPS flight provided planned flight time is at least 90 minutes.
•may be completed on a non ETOPS flight provided the planned flight duration is long enough to establish that the system(s) requiring verification is fully operational.
•may be conducted on the initial segment of an ETOPS flight prior to the aircraft entering the ETOPS segment of the route. The initial segment of the flight prior to the ETOPS entry point must be a minimum of 60 minutes after departure.
OMA 8.5.6 p5
The maximum altitude at which the Landing Gear may be extended is:
Is there a limiting altitude with the flaps and slats not fully retracted?
•Yes, it is 20,000 ft
•Yes, it is 22,500 ft
•Yes, it is the same as the aircraft certified limit (41,100 ft).
Which of the following conditions apply to maximum wind speed
for operation of aircraft doors?
•60 kt for opening or closing of passenger or cargo doors irrespective of wind direction.
•40 kt for opening and 60 kt for closing passenger doors (aircraft nose orientated into wind or wind on leeward side).
•40 kt for opening or closing passenger doors (aircraft nose not orientated into wind).
The APU maximum EGT for start is:
•650 Degrees C.
•950 Degrees C.
•1,250 Degrees C.
With the aircraft loaded up to maximum Takeoff
weight for departure, if a long taxi out is expected what is the maximum taxi
fuel that can be loaded?
•500 kg of taxi fuel.
•900 kg of taxi fuel.
•There is no upper limit of taxi fuel allowed in these circumstances.
3.01.20 p2 not -600
What is the maximum brake temperature allowed for
•100 Degrees C
•300 Degrees C
•360 Degrees C
The images of three PFD's are shown. Which image
displays the correct conditions for flap retraction to FLAP 1?
(Answer) Not in SRS!!
Condition: Glideslope capture, Flap 2 just being selected, speed 205 kt.
May the Landing Gear be extended to assist speed management?
•No, the limit speed is 205 kt and below 20,000 ft.
•Yes, the criteria is 250 kt/.55 and below 21,000 ft.
•No the maximum speed for extension on A330/A343 is 200 kt.
A CAT 2 / CAT 3 automatic approach, or automatic landing and automatic
roll out, can be carried out with a Headwind component of 35 kt and tail/cross
wind limits of?
•Tailwind of 15 kt and Crosswind of 20 kt.
•Tailwind of 10 kt and Crosswind of 30 kt.
•Tailwind of 10 kt and Crosswind of 20 kt.
What conditions are required in order to use AP and FD in OPEN
DES and DES modes on approach?
•The FCU altitude is set to or above MDA (MDH) or 500 ft AGL, whichever is higher.
•The FMGS is approved based on the assumption that the database has been validated for the intended use.
•The FCU altitude is set at or below MDA (MDH) or 500 ft AGL, whichever is lower.
The maximum aircraft operating altitude for
the A330 fleet is limited to?
•41,100 Feet (irrespective of FCTM, FCOM, or NTC revisions)
When starting the APU, what is the maximum EGT allowed?
•650 Degrees C.
•950 Degrees C.
•1,250 Degrees C.
Just prior to entering the active runway, after a long
taxi-out, the ECAM wheel page shows number 3 wheel with an amber arc above the brake
temperature (also displayed in amber). Is the takeoff allowed?
•Yes, provided no associated warnings are annunciated.
•No. This means the brake temperature is greater than the allowed limit (300 Degrees C).
•Yes, provided the displayed temperature value is below 360 Degrees C.
1.32.30 p15 3.01.32 p1
In relation to Alternate Airport Planning minima:
•Forecasts of Tempo and Prob can be ignored.
•Forecasts of Tempo and Prob can be ignored provided they are better than the applicable CAT 1 landing minima, or appropriate minima if no precision approach is available.
•Forecasts of Tempo and Prob must be applied in all cases.
Ops Man Pt A 18.104.22.168 Note 6
Which statement concerning destination airport forecast
visibility is correct?
•Forecast visibility at the pre-flight stage must not be less than the destination weather minima for "Filing as an Alternate".
•Forecast visibility, including Tempo, must not be less than the destination minimum visibility for landing
•At the pre-flight stage, destination forecast visibility when converted to RVR and exceeding the specified minimum for landing, may be ignored.
Ops Man Pt A 22.214.171.124.1
At the planning stage forecast weather for enroute
airports used to calculate mandatory fuel must be:
•1,000ft ceiling, 3,000 metres vis or greater.
•Alternate planning minima or greater.
•Landing minima or greater.
Ops Man Pt A 126.96.36.199.1
If the destination forecast indicated a trend that CAT II operation
will be required, Alt WX is Tempo below CAT I land minima but above CAT II LDG
•The ALTN may be used for CAT III a/c only.
•The ALTN should be changed to one more suitable.
•The ALTN is still acceptable.
First clause a red herring - Ops Man Pt A 188.8.131.52.2
In the event of an engine shutdown in-flight, the
•should land at the nearest CX On-line Port.
•should land at the nearest suitable airport.
•should land at the nearest airport.
Dodgy question, A330 only Ops Man Pt A 184.108.40.206
The CFP engine inoperative PNR includes:
•provision for a second engine failure on the return leg,
•provision for a depressurization or a second engine failure on the return leg,
•an allowance for the turn onto track but makes no provision for depressurization or second engine failure on the return leg.
Ops Man Pt A 220.127.116.11
Following a loss of aircraft pressurization
without structural failure, the Commander considers it safe to continue beyond
the nearest suitable airport and proceed to the filed destination. The fuel
required would be:
•Normal Fuel Required.
•Normal Fuel Required, unless the requirements of Inflight Reduction of Normal Fuel Required can be met.
•sufficient fuel to continue to an airport plus 30min holding at 1500ft and carry out an approach and landing.
Ops Man Pt A 18.104.22.168
Reserve fuel is:
•30 min clean at 15000 ft at aircraft weight at alternate.
•30 min clean at 1500 ft at aircraft weight at alternate.
•30 min 1-eng inop at 1500 ft at aircraft weight at alternate.
Ops Man Pt A 22.214.171.124
The correct sequence of pilot actions on receipt of a breakout instruction during an ILS /PRM approach is;
•Disconnect the autopilot and manually turn the aircraft to the breakout heading without delay, climb or descend to the altitude specified by ATC, and read back the ATC instruction as soon as practicable.
•Reconfigure the aircraft as required without delay, read back the breakout instruction, disconnect the autopilot and manually turn the aircraft to the breakout heading as soon as practicable.
•Read back the breakout instruction without delay, reconfigure the aircraft as required, and turn the aircraft to the breakout heading with the autopilot engaged.
SYD Jepp 11-0 - Ops Man Pt A 126.96.36.199.2
ILS / PRM approaches should be flown;
•With a small lateral offset from the localizer course.
•Manually, to facilitate rapid response to a breakout instruction.
•With the autopilot coupled whenever practicable.
SYD Jepp 11-0
In the event of a NAV ACCUR DOWNGRADE message during a fully managed non-precision approach (FMA mode FINAL APP):
•You must revert to selected guidance, and continue the approach.
•You can continue to fly a managed approach if raw data indicates that the guidance is satisfactory.
•In IMC, you must immediately initiate a missed approach.
The FMGS is certified for Required Navigation Performance (RNP) RNAV operations. When GPS Primary mode is available, the
minimum RNP for approach have been demonstrated to be:
•0.51 nm when AP or FD are used or in manual control.
•0.5 nm when AP or FD are used and 1.0 nm in manual control.
•0.3 nm when AP or FD are used.
3.01.22 p2 HLM-HLW & LAA-LAC only
24 satellites are potentially available for the GPS system. The minimum number that the system needs to maintain normal modes of operation is:
•12, (the other 12 are over the horizon).
In order to inform ATC that the aircraft is capable of Datalink Communications:
•ATS Facilities Notification (AFN) is necessary, however no pilot action is required.
•A CPDLC downlink message must be sent to each applicable ATC centre.
•AFN is necessary and the pilot initiates this.
Ops Man Pt A 188.8.131.52.1
In order to carry out a CAT 3
DUAL LWMO autoland which of the following statements is true?
•All 3 PRIMs must be serviceable.
•One FWC may be unserviceable
•The F/O's windshield wiper may be inoperative.
When can a computer reset be attempted?
•Only when recommended by an ECAM or paper checklist procedure.
•When a failure is detected or suspected, and the QRH has been consulted to ensure that the reset is not forbidden.
•At any time by using the applicable RESET Pb on the OVHD RESET panel once only.
When within RVSM airspace:
•two primary altimeters must at all times agree within plus or minus 150ft.
•during climb or descent, the aircraft should not be allowed to overshoot or undershoot the cleared level by more than 200 ft.
•rates of climb and descent should be limited to less than 1,000 fpm when approaching the cleared FL in vicinity of other traffic.
Ops Man Pt A 184.108.40.206.2
When operating in RVSM airspace an ASR is required for any altitude
•More than 200 ft.
•More than 300 ft
•550 ft or more
Ops Man Pt A 220.127.116.11.4
When flying in RVSM airspace and
experiencing the effects of wake turbulence crews may:
•Obtain a clearance to fly up to 1 NM offset.
•Fly up to 2 NM offset of the route and advise ATC, planning to return to track as soon as practicable.
•Climb or descend 300ft and advise ATC.
Ops Man Pt A 18.104.22.168.2
Cathay Pacific is authorized by the HKCAD for the following
•RVSM, MNPS,ETOPS, LWMO, ILS PRM, RNP1
•RVSM, MNPS,ETOPS, LWMO, RNP1
•RVSM, MNPS,ETOPS, LWMO, ILS PRM, GPS, RNP1.
Ops Man Pt A 22.214.171.124
Approved Non-Precision Approach aids include:
•VOR, PAR and ILS (Back Beam).
•VOR, GPS/RNAV and ILS (Back Beam).
•VOR, GPS/RNAV and PAR.
Which of the following set of clearances, instructions
and information do NOT require a readback to ATC:
•ATC route clearances and speed instructions.
•Wind information on takeoff and landing.
•Runway in use and altimeter settings.
Ops Man Pt A 126.96.36.199
The expected fuel colour loaded into the aircraft is:
•White Water to Light Amber or Straw colour
Ops Man Pt A 188.8.131.52
Where autoland approval has been given on the Port page, both
glidepath angle and threshold crossing height (TCH) have been assessed to be
•2.5 - 3.5 degree Glide Path angle and 40 - 60 ft TCH.
•2.5 - 3.25 degree Glide Path angle and 40 - 65 ft TCH.
•2.5 - 3.25 degree Glide Path angle and 40 - 60 ft TCH.
Ops Man Pt A 184.108.40.206
LWMO CAT 3A and CAT 3B approaches at U.S. airports have a
crosswind limit of:
Ops Man Pt A 8.4.2
During an approach with an ambient temp of ISA - 15C. What
correction should be applied to the MSA? (I think this is a typo as no
correction is required at ISA-15.)
Ops Man Pt A 220.127.116.11.2
Any BTC/STC/TC may allow a JF/O to operate to a crosswind
Ops Man Pt A 18.104.22.168
Are crew expected to know the contents of the Confidential
Notices to Crew and where are they located?
•Yes it is the responsibility of all crew to ensure that they are fully conversant with them, they are located in the Red folder which is kept at dispatch and may need to be requested.
•Yes, they are located in the NTC binder at dispatch.
•No as these are only required when advised by company NOTAM, they are located on the aircraft in the NTC mini book.
Ops Man Pt A 10.1.1 p13
The Fukuoka ILS RWY 16 Circling to RWY 34
MDA is: 1030 ft. Which statement is correct?
•Circling to Rwy 34, obstacle clearance protection within 5.02 NM of Rwy 34 is provided.
•Circling to Rwy 34, obstacle clearance protection within 2.3 NM of Rwy 34 is provided.
•Circling to Rwy 34, 300 ft obstacle clearance protection within 2.5 NM of the Runway 16/34 (as joined by tangents to each radius) is provided.
Ops Man Pt A 22.214.171.124
The company defined minimum 'circle to land altitude' for Cathay Pacific
•800 ft above DH for the precision approach and 4600M visibility or whatever minima is published on the Jeppesen chart.
•1000 ft above mean sea level and 4600M visibility.
•1000 ft AAL and 4600M visibility.
Ops Man Pt A 126.96.36.199
CX circle to land minima is the highest of the Jeppesen Chart published minima
•or 1000ft AAL and 4.6 km visibility
•and 4.6 km visibility
•and 1000ft AAL
Odd question - Ops Man Pt A 188.8.131.52 - (a)
While on radar vectors for the ILS 07L (Jepp.
11 - 1) in Hong Kong, ATC has positioned the aircraft over D157U (D21.0 NLG) at
an altitude of 3200ft. The aircraft is:
•above the Sector MSA.
•below the Sector MSA.
•outside of the MSA protected airspace as it is beyond 25 NM from TD VOR.
Dodgy question: could be all three depending on what you consider. If restricted to TD then (c) - given as correct! This is a dumb question; there's always an MSA, it's just that this point is more than 25d from TD and, anyway, HKG MSAs are now based on CH.
NOTAM for your destination, Manila, state
that AD Fire/Crash facilities are CAT 6 due to equipment un-serviceabilities.
•Weather and Runway state must be checked performance optimized e.g. no fuel tankering and use of max take - off thrust.
•Line Operations should have obtained approval from the relevant Airport Authority and HKCAD.
•No operational restrictions apply.
Ops Man Pt A 8.1.26
After receiving Load sheet ENDO 1, you are
advised 1,200 KG has been added to the ZFW and an Index change of +3 units is
required. Which statement below is correct?
•A LMC adjustment of 1200 KG will be annotated on the Loadsheet EDNO 2 with no change to the MAIN BODY of the Loadsheet.
•Loadsheet EDNO 2 is required as LMC Index change limit has been exceeded.
•Loadsheet EDNO 2 is required as the LMC weight change limit has been exceeded. The MAIN BODY of the Loadsheet will be changed to reflect the updated load data.
Ops Man Pt A 184.108.40.206.8
In designated In Flight Blind Broadcast
Procedures (IFBP) airspace, crews should broadcast:
•20 minutes before entering the designated airspace.
•5 minutes prior to crossing a reporting point.
•at 15 minute intervals between distant reporting points.
Ops Man Pt A 220.127.116.11
What action is required when the longer
Holdover Time (HOT) is exceeded following anti-icing?
•Both a Pre-take-off Check (inspection from with the aircraft) and a Pre-take-off Contamination Check (external check) of critical surfaces within 5 minutes of take-off, assuming contaminant precipitation is present.
•Return for further de-icing/anti-icing in all cases.
•Only a Pre-take-off Check (internal inspection) is required.
Ops Man Pt A 18.104.22.168
During CRUISE, ECAM: Doors Avionics Door
Open message occurs, pressurization indications are NORMAL, what would you do?
•No crew action is required, as long as cabin pressure is normal.
•Dump fuel (0verweight landing acceptable), land as soon as possible.
•Immediately descend to FL100/MEA and send the F/O down to close the door
Carriage of durian consignments requires:
•an annotation of "PEP" on the Loadsheet.
•a NOTOC and an annotation of "PEP" on the Loadsheet.
•a NOTOC and an annotation of "PED" on the Loadsheet.
Ops Man Pt A 22.214.171.124
After Dispatch, the destination weather forecast indicates a
trend that LWMO operation will be required. The destination alternate weather is
also forecast to be below the CAT 1 landing minima. Which statement below is
•The alternate may be used for CAT 3A approved aircraft only.
•The alternate should be changed to one which permits CAT 1 operations.
•The alternate is still acceptable.
First Officers may not operate as PF when:
•landing if actual terminal weather is less than 300 FT cloudbase or less than 1,500 M visibility.
•a crosswind of 25kts prevails when flying with a Training Captain during Command training.
•take-off is from a field length limited runway.
Communications equipment required for an ILS PRM approach is a
dual VHF installation. During an ILS PRM approach, pilots must:
•Monitor and transmit on both the TWR and Monitor frequencies.
•Monitor and transmit on the TWR frequency only.
•Monitor both frequencies, adjusted to the same volume, but transmit on only the TWR frequency.
When a departing aircraft is cleared to climb above the
initially cleared level or the levels specified in a SID, company policy requires:
•immediate climb to the ATC cleared level.
•climb initiation within two minutes to the ATC cleared level.
•the aircraft to follow the published vertical profile of the SID unless such restrictions are explicitly cancelled by ATC.
Performance, Weight & Balance
When calculating the Actual Landing Distance required from the QRH 4.02/03, the value obtained assumes that the approach is flown at:
•VAPP as indicated on the MCDU PERF APP page.
•A speed dependent on the failure mode.
Under what conditions, when below 500 ft, could the final approach be flown
•Never, as it is not approved in the Airplane Flight Manual.
•In tailwind conditions in order to reduce the groundspeed.
•It is possible and allowed when conducting a No flap/No slat approach.
Which of the following is true regarding the carriage of radioactive goods:
•From all CX ports we can carry only 7 TI in each of the FWD and Aft cargo compartments and none in the Bulk compartment.
•From HKG and LHR only we can carry 7 TI in each of the FWD and Aft cargo compartments and none in the Bulk compartment.
•From all CX ports except HKG and LHR we can carry only 7 TI in each of the FWD and Aft cargo compartments and none in the Bulk compartment. From HKG and LHR we can carry more.
During the one engine inop drift-down procedure, if obstacles are not a factor:
•Maintain OP DES until the ROD becomes zero.
•Select V/S mode if ROD becomes less than 500 fpm.
•Select A/THR OFF if ROD becomes less than 500 fpm.
How should A/P and A/THR be used in severe
•Disconnect the autopilot (A/P) and A/THR in cruise. A/P may be used for the approach however A/THR must be disconnected
•Keep the autopilot and A/THR ON, to reduce pilot workload regardless of thrust changes.
•Keep the autopilot ON, disconnect A/THR in cruise if thrust changes become excessive, but for approach use A/THR for managed speed.
The Taipei ATIS is Runway 06 in use, wind 240/5 kt,
CAVOK, QNH 1025hp. The aircraft has a PADD for #1 Reverser locked-out. Are you
permitted to use Simplified RTOW data:
•No, due to a reverser inoperative
•No, due tailwind
The minimum thrust setting for takeoff when using
Simplified RTOW data is:
•Flexible or Assumed temperature thrust
•Maximum rate thrust
After inserting loadsheet data, if the discrepancy between
ECAM CG and loadsheet MACTOW is more than 2%, then after checking correct data
insertion, what action is required?
•A new loadsheet must be requested as the takeoff cannot be commenced until the discrepancy has been resolved.
•Use the checklist table for TRIM setting based on GWCG indicated on ECAM, provided it is inside the operational limit for takeoff.
•Use the TRIM setting from the loadsheet, provided it is within the operational limits, as this data is calculated using the operational performance limit for takeoff.
What does a boxed "L" against an item in the MEL imply?
•The landing capability of the aircraft is affected.
•The aircraft is not approved to carry out LWMO operations when this MEL item is applied.
•The aircraft is the subject of a CX Maintenance concession.
MEL HOW p 20/34
An OPT FL is displayed on the PROG page.
What considerations are taken into account?
•This reflects optimum aircraft performance without taking the cost aspect into account.
•This represents the cruise altitude for minimum cost when ECON MACH is flown.
•This represents the Optimum altitude to be flown, for a given MACH number, should a FMGS failure occur.
4.02.20 p21, 4.03.20 p126 & FCTM 5.2.4
What would be the correct actions relating to the Air
Conditioning system if an engine failure occurs during a takeoff with the Packs
•Select pack 1 "ON" after reaching acceleration altitude and pack 2 "ON" 10 to 15 seconds later (to allow pack 1 to stabilise and reduce pneumatic demand).
•Both packs may be selected to "ON" simultaneously when the speed trend arrow reaches Green Dot speed in clean configuration.
•Both packs may be selected to "ON" after MCT has been set and the aircraft is climbing at Green Dot speed.
This page was last updated 10 July 2013