This page is purely for my benefit. Once the Tech Quiz was neatly tied to the Annual Line Check and full of reasonable questions that had clear answers. Now some saddo has dumped it in the Summer Holidays when the kids are off school so you buy up time doing a quiz that doesn't even have the benefit of working you up for the AL. The questions are often bizarre and inaccurate such as the new max altitude one, hard to fathom such as the LVP in DPS (still don't get that one). So I thought I'd make my life easy and collate my previous efforts, then decided that I might as well post it on my web site - as good a place as any. No answers here (well, not many) so I have to open the book next year. I have now added my 2007 quiz. This page was built to the sounds of David Coverdale's Whitesnake Live In the Still of the Night and Porcupine Tree's Arriving Somewhere... so the desk and monitor are currently reverberating.
If you feel that you can help flesh out this page, dispute my references or have a better one, you know where I am. The actual TQ appears in section titled by systems; that doesn't really work for me nor is it consistent with Airbus philosophy so I've reverted to ATA with a couple of collector sections.
Updated with my 2008 questions.
A330 Specific
A340-300 Specific
A340-600 Specific
ETOPS
Limitations
Miscellaneous/Operational
Performance, Weight and Balance
Air Conditioning - Pressurisation
Autoflight - FMGS
Comm
Electrical
Fire Protection
Flight Controls
Fuel
Hydraulics
Ice and Rain
Indicating Recording System
Landing Gear
Navigation
Oxygen
APU - Pneumatics
Power Plant
During a MAN ENG START:
•The flight crew must monitor all engine parameters and take appropriate action in case of an abnormal start.
•The engine will automatically shutdown for an EGT exceedence if on the ground.
•The FADEC monitors all engine parameters and will take the necessary action to prevent any limits being exceeded.
3.04.70 p1
The fixed oxygen system in the cabin is supplied by chemical generators:
•Stored in the forward cargo compartment.
•Which supply a mixture of oxygen and cabin air under positive pressure depending on cabin altitude.
•In containers above the passenger seats.
1.35.30 p1
During a Go-Around, Engine 2 EGT is noted
as reaching a high of 908 degrees C for approximately 25 seconds. Which of the
following statements is true?
•This should trigger an ECAM warning ENG 2 EGT OVERLIMTT
•No ECAM warning would be announced as the EGT limit for
TOGA is 920 degrees C.
•EGT limit is 900 degrees C, however good airmanship
requires that the Thrust lever be retarded to reduce the EGT to below the limit.
1.70.95 p19
3.01.70 p1
To ensure a proper test of the system, how should the
CARGO SMOKE TEST Pb be pressed?
•Momentarily.
•Pushed and held for more than 2 seconds (but less than 5
seconds).
•Pushed and held for more than 5 seconds (but less than 7
seconds).
1.26.50 p5
The cabin fixed oxygen system capacity is dependant on
the aircraft descending according to a fixed profile. Which statement correctly
identifies this profile?
•Requires the aircraft to be at (or below) FL 250, 7
minutes after initiating the descent.
•Requires an emergency descent to 10000ft within 20
minutes.
•Allows the aircraft to level off at FL 290 for 17 minutes
during the descent.
2.06.20 p3
During departure preparation it is noted that gusty wind conditions
exist. Which of the following parameters should be observed?
•Wind limits of 32 kt with gusts up to 40 kt for takeoff and landing.
•Wind limits of 32 kt for takeoff and 32 kt with gusts up to 40 kt for
landing.
•Wind limits of 32 kt for takeoff and 15 kt for landing.
3.01.20 p7
In the event of a passenger oxygen mask being deployed by mistake in
flight, and the passenger pulling the mask down, what further actions are
required?
•If the flight is full then the oxygen masks and tubes should be secured
to the PSU's with adhesive tape.
•If the flight is full then the oxygen masks should be restowed and
descent must be initiated in case of a pressurisation malfunction later in the
flight.
•Restow the affected masks carefully and close the door.
3.04.35 p1
Which of the following is correct regarding the fixed cabin oxygen
system?
•8 bottles are located in the forward cargo compartment and supply
oxygen to passenger masks via dedicated piping.
•The bottles supply a mixture of oxygen and cabin air under positive
pressure depending on cabin altitude.
•Oxygen containers (should read generators) are located in the PSU's
above the passenger seats.
1.35.30 p1
During deployment, engine reverse thrust is limited to reverse idle
until reversers are:
•Deployed by more than 70%.
•Fully deployed.
•Deployed by more than 90%.
1.70.70 p2
If a tail pipe fire was experienced, requiring starter
engagement, how long could the starter remain continuously engaged?
•5 Minutes.
•6 Minutes total based on two 3 minute duty cycles.
•There is no FCOM limitation, in this situation.
QRH 2.25 3.01.70 p2
What is the maximum tailwind starting limitation:
•15 Knots.
•25 Knots.
•There is no limit only a recommendation.
3.01.70 p4
Before pushback/engine start of B-HXD in TPE the wind speed is recorded at >15
kt. If pushback places the engine tailpipe into wind, is the start allowed?
•No, as the tailwind start limit is a sustained wind speed of 15 Knots.
•Start is allowed at winds gusting to 25 Knots.
•Start is allowed as there is no defined limit only a recommendation.
3.01.70 p4
In the event of a rejected takeoff above 72/78 kt, ground spoiler deployment occurs:
•With the spoilers not armed, when all thrust levers are at idle, and at least
one reverser is selected.
•With the spoilers not armed, when all the thrust levers are at idle.
•With the spoilers armed, when all the thrust levers are at idle.
1.27.10 p13
During a relight of the CFM56 engine in flight:
•If airspeed is at or above 300kt, a manual start is recommended.
•The FADEC controls abort and recycle capabilities.
•Airspeed at or above 300kt is needed for a windmilling start.
QRH 2.23
You are operating B-HXL. After pushback and during engine start, what is the
maximum allowable EGT?
•700 degrees C (ground conditions, 850 in flight).
•950 Degrees C at any time
•725 degrees C (ground conditions or in flight).
3.01.70 p1
How is the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton used?
•The FADEC is supplied by the aircraft electrical system as
long as the pushbutton is selected and the "ON" light illuminates (except if the
ENG FIRE pb is released)
•With the pushbutton selected, the FADEC is supplied for up
to 5 minutes, provided the ENG FIRE pb is not released or the engine is running.
•The FADEC is supplied by the aircraft electrical system on
ground or in flight as long as the pushbutton is selected and the "ON' light is
illuminated.
1.70.90 p5
Which of the following values are correct for the fuel
jettison rate, (excluding fuel burn)?
•5,000 kg / min.
•2,000 kg / min.
•1,000
kg / min.
1.28.10 p30
After takeoff the left gear door fails to retract/close. A
decision is made to return to the departure airfield. The ECAM permanent data
shows: GW 225,000 kg and CG 26.5%. What actions should be considered regarding
the fuel system?
•Jettison fuel at a rate of 2,000 kg/min until MLW is achieved.
•Considering the failure mode, no jettison should be attempted and an emergency
landing could be made.
•Jettison fuel for approximately 35 minutes prior to requesting all necessary
landing clearances.
3.01.20 p2, FCTM 8.6.1, 1.28.10 p28, QRH 2.11
What is the maximum guaranteed relight altitude for the
CFM56 engine?
•31,000 ft.
•28,000 ft.
•41,100 ft.
QRH 2.23
What
conditions apply during a relight of the CFM56 engine in flight?
•If airspeed
is at or above 300 kt, a manual start is recommended.
•The FADEC
controls abort and recycle capabilities.
•Airspeed at
or above 300 kt is needed for a windmilling start.
QRH 2.23
When using Jet A fuel, if the actual freeze temp is not known, what is
the minimum fuel temperature allowed in flight?
•Minus 35 Degrees C in any tank.
•Minus 35 Degrees C in the inner tank.
•Minus 45 Degrees C in the inner tank.
3.01.28 p2
Which of the following is true when a Gravity Extension
selection is made?
•The main, nose and center landing gear doors unlock, the gears extend by
gravity, the doors remain open and NWS is retained (via the Yellow hydraulic
system).
•The main and nose landing gear doors unlock, these gears extend by gravity, the
doors remain open, (except for the center gear which remains closed). NWS is
lost. •The main, nose and center landing gear doors unlock, all landing gears
extend, assisted by spring force, and the NWS is lost due to the doors remaining
open.
1.32.10 p8
When the aircraft is being operated with no cabin crew on
board, (with or without passengers), additional checks should be made. Which
statement is correct?
•PNF checks the cabin for general security, signs for any catering, secures the
galley, Captain arms L1 and L2 doors checks LDMCR access hatch is open, and
remains in the open position. Captain also ensures passengers carried (according
to Vol 1) receive a ...
•PF checks the cabin for general security, arms L1 and R1 doors PNF signs for
any catering, secures the galley, LDMCR access hatch checked closed, and remains
in the closed position. Captain ensures passengers carried (according to Vol 1)
receive a safety ...
•PNF checks the cabin for general security, signs for any catering, secures the
galley, arms L1 and R1 doors LDMCR access hatch checked closed, and remains in
the closed position. Captain ensures passengers carried(according to Vol 1)
receive an emergency ...
3.04.92 p1
The Integrated Standby Instrument System (ISIS) obtains its Pitot/Static input from:
•The Captains Pitot/Static source unless Air Data switching is at Capt on 3, in which case the ISIS obtains its Pitot/Static input from the Standby Pitot/Static source.
•The Standby Pitot/Static source regardless of Air Data switching position.
•ADIRU 3.
1.34.25 p2
The Nose Wheel steering angle is limited to:
•65 Degrees.
•72 Degrees.
•76 Degrees.
Dodgy question 1.32.20 p2
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Nose Wheel
steering?
•The Nose Wheel steering angle is limited to 65 degrees allowing a 180
degree turn on a runway that is 54 meters in width.
•The Nose Wheel steering angle is limited to 72 degrees.
•The Nose Wheel steering angle is limited to 76 degrees allowing a 180
degree turn on a runway that is not less than 56 meters in width.
1.32.20 p2 FCTM 3.30.06
With all Engines running and Park Brake ON the Thrust should not be set greater than:
•1.4 EPR.
•1.24 EPR.
•70% N1.
3.01.32 p1
The maximum EGT for Take-Off is:
•850 Degrees C.
•900 Degrees C.
•950 Degrees C.
3.01.70 p1
Shortly after rotation and liftoff, the ECAM warning ENG 1 EGT OVERLIMIT is
displayed?
•This is due to FADEC sensing an EGT on #1 engine, greater than 850 degrees C
for a maximum of 20 secs).
•Engine #1 FADEC has detected an EGT higher than 900 degrees C.
•The FWC has detects an EGT at or above 920 degrees C.
3.02.70 p26 1.70.95 p20
What crosswind/tailwind limits should be adhered to for Take-Off?
•Crosswind 27 kt gusting to 33 kt and Tailwind 15 kt.
•Crosswind 35 kt (gust included) and Tailwind 15 kt.
•Crosswind 37 kt (gust included) and Tailwind 10 kt.
3.01.20 p6
The Taxi Aid Camera System (TACS) has 2 cameras installed
that displays views of the "belly" and from the fin. Correct use would include
[image deleted]:
•Display the images on the PFD's and/or SD at any time by
selecting the appropriate TACS switches to ON.
•Display the images on the PFD of the PF (on ground only
speed <60 kt)or, on the SD at any time the associated camera switch is selected
ON, provided there is no system page automatically or manually called for
display.
•Displayed on both PFD's and the SD simultaneously on the
ground only (speed <60 kt) to enhance safety. In flight, however, only one PFD
can show the TACS images.
1.23.25 p3
The EPR indication has a grey sector indicating the
usable EPR range from Idle to TOGA. When is the grey sector displayed?
•At all times that the FADEC is powered.
•Once the engine is at, or above, idle for more than one
second and the grey sector is displayed in Rated N1 or EPR mode. The grey sector
is not displayed in reverse mode or in the event of an engine failure.
•Once the engine is at, or above, idle for more than one
second and the grey sector is not displayed in N1 mode, in reverse mode, or in
the event of an engine failure.
1.70.95 p8
When the Cargo Fire Pb is pressed, the bottle 1 squib
is ignited and the extinguisher agent releases. What is the correct sequence/
statement for the other 2 bottles?
•Bottle 2 has a metering system to provide 240
minutes of
extinguishing agent time, whilst bottle 3'remains available for use in case of a
subsequent fire in the same compartment.
•Bottles 2 & 3 have a metering system, which provides 240
minutes extinguishing agent time in the same compartment that bottle 1 was discharged into.
•Bottle 2 has a metering system to provide 240
minutes of
extinguishing agent time whilst bottle 3 remains available for use in case of a
subsequent fire in either compartment.
1.26.50 p3
With the Pack Flow selector in the NORM position, how is the airflow
controlled by the Zone Controller?
•Automatically, depending upon the number of
passengers entered into the MCDU, and on the cabin temperature demand.
•The airflow is controlled to provide a 100% flow rate when the aircraft
speed is below 70 kt (as sensed by BSCU).
•The airflow is automatically controlled to provide a constant flow rate
of 200L/second for any cabin altitude.
1.21.10 p16
Transfer of fuel from the Centre tank to the Inners is dependent upon
the fuel quantity in the Centre tank. If there is less than 17 tonnes of fuel in
the centre tank then the transfer schedule would be:
•Transfer aims to keep all 4 inner tanks between 17.2t to 18.2t.
•Transfer aims to keep Inner tanks 1 & 4 between 17.2t to 18.2t whilst
the Inner tanks 2 & 3 are kept between 24.8t to 25.8t
•Centre tank will transfer continuously to Inner Tanks 2 & 3 until the
centre tank is empty.
1.28.10 p10
When is the Pitch Trim automatically set to the value entered
on the Perf INIT page (this is technically not correct):
•As soon as the 3rd engine has been started (i.e. all hydraulic systems are
pressurised).
•As soon as number 3 engine is started.
•When the Pre Take-Off Flight Control Check is performed.
1.27.20 p2
Following a diversion from the ETOPS critical point, fuel planning will enable:
•30 mins holding at 1,500 ft, followed by an approach, go-around and further approach and landing.
•15 mins holding at 1,500 ft, followed by an approach and missed approach, and then a normal landing.
•An approach and missed approach, diversion to alternate, arriving with 15 minutes of fuel, then a final approach and landing.
V2P2 2-1-3 3.1
At the planning stage for an ETOPS flight,
your flight plan indicates there are several non-ETOPS route segments. Poor
weather is forecast for some of the airports in the non-ETOPS segments of the
intended flight. Which statement below is correct?
•All enroute airports must meet ETOPS Dispatch criteria as
the whole flight is an ETOPS operation.
•The forecast weather must be suitable for at least CAT 1
operations.
•Normal en-route, destination and alternate planning minima
in accordance with Vol.2 Pt.2, Section 1 are to be used for the non-ETOPS
segments.
V2P2 2-1-4 4.1
After dispatch, but prior to the ETOPS Entry Point, a
diversion must be carried out for:
•any equipment failure annotated with an "E" in the MEL
•if a checklist requires the crew to "plan to land at the
nearest suitable airport / LAND ASAP".
•both the options are correct.
V2P2 2-1-5 5.4
The ETOPS 60 minute Rule Distance for the B777 and A330 is:
•based upon 75% of VMO/MMO for 60 minutes in still air.
•434 nm.
•443
nm.
V2P2 2-1-2
In ETOPS operations, the "90/60 Rule" means that the aircraft may
dispatch on an ETOPS flight provided:
•system functionality is confirmed within
the first 60 minutes of the flight.
•system functionality is verified within the first 90 minutes, provided
the aircraft remains within 60 minutes of a suitable airport.
•system functionality is verified within the first 60 minutes while the
aircraft remains within a Rule Time of 90 minutes, taking the effects of wind
into account.
V2P2 2-1-6
When a verification flight is completed on an ETOPS flight,
the commander must:
•Contact Cathay Pacific Maintenance Control after the the completion of the
first 90 minutes of flight, and prior to entering the ETOPS segment, with the
results of the verification.
•Contact Cathay Pacific Maintenance Control after the the completion of the
first 60 minutes of flight, and prior to entering the ETOPS segment, with the
results of the verification.
•Contact Cathay Pacific Maintenance Control after landing with the results of
the verification.
V2P2 2-1-7
After dispatch for an ETOPS flight, the weather minima for a suitable
enroute alternate airport must be above:
•ETOPS planning minima.
•Alternate planning minima.
•Landing minima.
V2P2 2-1-4 5.2 & 1-1-4 4.2
An ETOPS
Critical Fuel Point code of "120ETOP2" on the CFP means:
•207 minutes ETOPS Rule Time with a MEL fuel additive of 12%.
•120 minutes ETOPS Rule Time with a MEL fuel additive of 1%.
•120 minutes ETOPS Rule Time with a MEL fuel additive of 2%.
V2P2 3-1-27
The maximum altitude at which the Landing Gear may be extended is:
•41,100 ft.
•21,000 ft.
•20,000 ft.
QRH 1.28
Is there a limiting altitude with the flaps and slats not fully retracted?
•Yes, it is 20,000 ft
•Yes, it is 22,500 ft
•Yes, it is the same as the aircraft certified limit (41,100 ft).
3.01.20 p11
The maximum wind speed for operation of aircraft doors (with aircraft orientated into wind) is:
•60 kt for opening or closing of passenger and cargo doors.
•40 kt for opening and 60 kt for closing passenger and cargo doors.
•50 kt for opening passenger doors and 60 kt for opening cargo doors.
Book has changed – 3.01.20 p7
The APU maximum EGT for start is:
•650 Degrees C.
•950 Degrees C.
•1,250 Degrees C.
3.01.49 p1
With the aircraft loaded up to maximum Takeoff
weight for departure, if a long taxi out is expected what is the maximum taxi
fuel that can be loaded?
•500 kg of taxi fuel.
•900 kg of taxi fuel.
•There is no upper limit of taxi fuel allowed in these
circumstances.
3.01.20 p2 not -600
What is the maximum brake temperature allowed for
take-off?
•100 Degrees C
•300 Degrees C
•360 Degrees C
3.01.32 p1
The images of three PFD's are shown. Which image
displays the correct conditions for flap retraction to FLAP 1?
(a) Not in SRS!!
Condition: Glideslope capture, Flap 2 just being selected, speed 205 kt.
May the Landing Gear be extended to assist speed management?
•No, the limit speed is 205 kt and below 20,000
ft.
•Yes, the criteria is 250 kt/.55 and below 21,000 ft.
•No the maximum speed for extension on A330/A343 is 200 kt.
3.01.20 p9
A CAT 2 / CAT 3 automatic approach, or automatic landing and automatic
roll out, can be carried out with a Headwind component of 35 kt and tail/cross
wind limits of?
•Tailwind of 15 kt and Crosswind of 20 kt.
•Tailwind of 10 kt and Crosswind of 30 kt.
•Tailwind of 10 kt and Crosswind of 20 kt.
3.01.22 p5
What conditions are required in order to use AP and FD in OPEN
DES and DES modes on approach?
•The FCU altitude is set to or above MDA (MDH) or 500 ft AGL, whichever is
higher.
•The FMGS is approved based on the assumption that the database has been
validated for the intended use.
•The FCU altitude is set at or below MDA (MDH) or 500 ft AGL, whichever is
lower.
3.01.22 p1
In relation to Alternate Airport Planning minima:
•Forecasts of Tempo and Prob can be ignored.
•Forecasts of Tempo and Prob can be ignored provided they are better than the applicable CAT 1 landing
minima, or appropriate minima if no precision approach is available.
•Forecasts of Tempo and Prob must be applied in all cases.
V2P2 1-1-3
The correct sequence of pilot actions on receipt of a breakout instruction during an ILS /PRM approach is;
•Disconnect the autopilot and manually turn the aircraft to the breakout heading without delay, climb or descend to the altitude specified by ATC, and read back the ATC instruction as soon as practicable.
•Reconfigure the aircraft as required without delay, read back the breakout instruction, disconnect the autopilot and manually turn the aircraft to the breakout heading as soon as practicable.
•Read back the breakout instruction without delay, reconfigure the aircraft as required, and turn the aircraft to the breakout heading with the autopilot engaged.
SYD Jepp 11-0 V2P2 3-1-37 12.3
In the event of a NAV ACCUR DOWNGRADE message during a fully managed non-precision approach (FMA mode FINAL APP):
•You must revert to selected guidance, and continue the approach.
•You can continue to fly a managed approach if raw data indicates that the guidance is satisfactory.
•In IMC, you must immediately initiate a missed approach.
(b)
The FMGS is certified for Required Navigation Performance (RNP) RNAV operations. When GPS Primary mode is available, the
minimum RNP for approach have been demonstrated to be:
•0.51 nm when AP or FD are used or in manual control.
•0.5 nm when AP or FD are used and 1.0 nm in manual control.
•0.3 nm when AP or FD are used.
3.01.22 p2 HLM-HLW & LAA-LAC only
ILS / PRM approaches should be flown;
•With a small lateral offset from the localizer course.
•Manually, to facilitate rapid response to a breakout instruction.
•With the autopilot coupled whenever practicable.
SYD Jepp 11-0
24 satellites are potentially available for the GPS system. The minimum number that the system needs to maintain normal modes of operation is:
•4
•3
•12, (the other 12 are over the horizon).
1.34.15 p5
In order to inform ATC that the aircraft is capable of Datalink Communications:
•ATS Facilities Notification (AFN) is necessary, however no pilot action is required.
•A CPDLC downlink message must be sent to each applicable ATC centre.
•AFN is necessary and the pilot initiates this.
V2P2 3-1-6 5.3
In order to carry out a CAT 3
DUAL LWMO autoland which of the following statements is true?
•All 3 PRIMs must be serviceable.
•One FWC may be unserviceable
•The F/O's windshield wiper may be
inoperative.
QRH 3.02
When can a computer reset be attempted?
•Only when recommended by an ECAM or paper checklist
procedure.
•When a failure is detected or suspected, and the QRH has
been consulted to ensure that the reset is not forbidden.
•At any time by using the applicable RESET Pb on the OVHD
RESET panel once only.
QRH 2.34
At the planning stage forecast weather for enroute
airports used to calculate mandatory fuel must be:
•1,000ft ceiling, 3,000 metres vis or greater.
•Alternate planning
minima or greater.
•Landing minima or greater.
V2P2 1-1-3
When within RVSM airspace:
•two primary altimeters must at all times agree within plus
or minus 150ft.
•during climb or descent, the aircraft should not be
allowed to overshoot or undershoot the cleared level by more than 200 ft.
•rates of climb and descent should be limited to less than
1,000 fpm when approaching the cleared FL in vicinity of other traffic.
V2P2 4-3-1 2.2
When operating in RVSM airspace an ASR is required for any altitude
deviation of:
•More than 200 ft.
•More than 300 ft
•550 ft or more
V2P2 4-3-3
In the event of an engine shutdown in-flight, the
aircraft:
•should land at the nearest CX On-line Port.
•should land at the nearest suitable airport.
•should land at the nearest airport.
Dodgy question, A330 only V2P2 1-3-1 2
Which of the following set of clearances, instructions
and information do NOT require a readback to ATC:
•ATC route clearances and speed instructions.
•Wind information on takeoff and landing.
•Runway in use and altimeter settings.
V2P2 3-3-7 12.2 3-3-10 12.4
Reserve fuel is:
•30 min clean at 15000 ft at aircraft weight at alternate.
•30 min clean at 1500 ft at aircraft weight at alternate.
•30 min 1-eng inop at 1500 ft at aircraft weight at alternate.
V2P2 1-2-1
If the destination forecast indicated a trend that CAT II operation
will be required, Alt WX is Tempo below CAT I land minima but above CAT II LDG
minima,
•The ALTN may be used for CAT III a/c only.
•The ALTN should be changed to one more suitable.
•The ALTN is still acceptable.
First clause a red herring - V2P2 1-1-3
The expected fuel colour loaded into the aircraft is:
•Green
•Red
•White Water to Light Amber or Straw colour
V2P2 1-2-14
When within RVSM airspace:
•two primary altimeters must at all times agree within plus or minus
150 ft.
•during climb or descent, the aircraft should not be allowed to
overshoot or undershoot the cleared level by more than 200 ft.
•rates of climb and descent should be limited to less than 1,000 fpm
when approaching the cleared FL in vicinity of other traffic.
V2P2 4-3-1
7. Which statement concerning destination airport forecast
visibility is correct?
•Forecast visibility at the pre-flight stage must not be less than
the destination weather minima for "Filing as an Alternate".
•Forecast visibility, including Tempo, must not be less than the
destination minimum visibility for landing
•At the pre-flight stage, destination forecast visibility when converted
to RVR and exceeding the specified minimum for landing, may be ignored.
V2P2 1-1-1
Where autoland approval has been given on the Port page, both
glidepath angle and threshold crossing height (TCH) have been assessed to be
within:
•2.5 - 3.5 degree Glide Path angle and 40 - 60 ft TCH.
•2.5 - 3.25 degree Glide Path angle and 40 - 65 ft TCH.
•2.5 - 3.25 degree Glide Path angle and 40 - 60 ft TCH.
V2P2 1-4-4
LWMO CAT 3A and CAT 3B approaches at U.S. airports have a
crosswind limit of:
•10 Knots.
•15 Knots.
•20 Knots.
V2P2 1-4-5
The CFP engine inoperative PNR includes:
•provision for a second engine failure on the return leg,
•provision for a depressurization or a second engine failure on the return leg,
•an allowance for the turn onto track but makes no provision for
depressurization or second engine failure on the return leg.
V2P2 1-3-3
During an approach with an ambient temp of ISA - 15C. What
correction should be applied to the MSA? (I think this is a typo as no
correction is required at ISA-15.)
•10% addition.
•20% addition.
•10% reduction.
V2P2 3-2-17
Any BTC/STC/TC may allow a JF/O to operate to a crosswind
limit of:
•15 Knots.
•25 Knots.
•20 Knots.
V2P2 1-6-2 3.2
Are crew expected to know the contents of the Confidential
Notices to Crew and where are they located?
Yes it is the responsibility of all crew to ensure that they are fully
conversant with them, they are located in the Red folder which is kept at
dispatch and may need to be requested.
Yes, they are located in the NTC binder at dispatch.
No as these are only required when advised by company NOTAM, they are located on
the aircraft in the NTC mini book.
V2P2 6-1-1
When calculating the Actual Landing Distance required from the QRH 4.02/03, the value obtained assumes that the approach is flown at:
•VAPP as indicated on the MCDU PERF APP page.
•VLS.
•A speed dependent on the failure mode.
2.04.10 p1
Under what conditions, when below 500 ft, could the final approach be flown
below VLS?
•Never, as it is not approved in the Airplane Flight Manual.
•In tailwind conditions in order to reduce the groundspeed.
•It is possible and allowed when conducting a No flap/No slat approach.
QRH 2.06
Which of the following is true regarding the carriage of radioactive goods:
•From all CX ports we can carry only 7 TI in each of the FWD and Aft cargo compartments and none in the Bulk compartment.
•From HKG and LHR only we can carry 7 TI in each of the FWD and Aft cargo compartments and none in the Bulk compartment.
•From all CX ports except HKG and LHR we can carry only 7 TI in each of the FWD and Aft cargo compartments and none in the Bulk compartment. From HKG and LHR we can carry
more.
V2P2 3-5-35 10
During the one engine inop drift-down procedure, if obstacles are not a factor:
•Maintain OP DES until the ROD becomes zero.
•Select V/S mode if ROD becomes less than 500 fpm.
•Select A/THR OFF if ROD becomes less than 500 fpm.
QRH 2.26
How should A/P and A/THR be used in severe
turbulence conditions?
•Disconnect the autopilot (A/P) and A/THR in cruise. A/P
may be used for the approach however A/THR must be disconnected
•Keep the autopilot and A/THR ON, to reduce pilot workload
regardless of thrust changes.
•Keep the autopilot ON, disconnect A/THR in cruise if
thrust changes become excessive, but for approach use A/THR for managed speed.
3.04.91 p1
The Taipei ATIS is Runway 06 in use, wind 240/5 kt,
CAVOK, QNH 1025hp. The aircraft has a PADD for #1 Reverser locked-out. Are you
permitted to use Simplified RTOW data:
•Yes
•No, due to a reverser inoperative
•No, due tailwind
2.02.20 p2/p6
The minimum thrust setting for takeoff when using
Simplified RTOW data is:
•Derated thrust
•Flexible or Assumed temperature thrust
•Maximum rate thrust
2.02.21 p2
After inserting loadsheet data, if the discrepancy between
ECAM CG and loadsheet MACTOW is more than 2%, then after checking correct data
insertion, what action is required?
•A new loadsheet must be requested as the takeoff cannot be commenced until the
discrepancy has been resolved.
•Use the checklist table for TRIM setting based on GWCG indicated on ECAM,
provided it is inside the operational limit for takeoff.
•Use the TRIM setting from the loadsheet, provided it is within the operational
limits, as this data is calculated using the operational performance limit for
takeoff.
3.03.07 p2
What does a boxed "L" against an item in the MEL imply?
•The landing capability of the aircraft is affected.
•The aircraft is not approved to carry out LWMO operations when this MEL item is
applied.
•The aircraft is the subject of a CX Maintenance concession.
MEL 00-04 p2